Something I've always wondered about the "not deducing halacha from aggada" concept is that the Gemara itself deduces halacha from aggada many, many times! So why can't we? Is it that those Geonim/Rishonim just felt we don't have a strong enough mesorah on how to understand aggada? Or is it that they felt that even when the Gemara does it, it's בגדר סמך לדבר בעלמא and not a real proof?
Something I've always wondered about the "not deducing halacha from aggada" concept is that the Gemara itself deduces halacha from aggada many, many times! So why can't we? Is it that those Geonim/Rishonim just felt we don't have a strong enough mesorah on how to understand aggada? Or is it that they felt that even when the Gemara does it, it's בגדר סמך לדבר בעלמא and not a real proof?