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Which do you consider correct?

"Baalav" as you have it in the title of your article and elsewhere, or בְּעָלָיו as shown in the vocalized Hebrew text?

(Or is it not a matter of significant concern to begin with?)

Thanks.

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Be'alav is grammatically correct, and I wouldn't argue with the masoretic text.

Ba'alav is Yeshivish, so insofar as language is organic, it is correct within that language. A search on Google gives 24,200 results for it with an e (corresponding to sheva) and 12,700 for ba'alav imo. The Yeshivish pronunciation presumably stems from a lack of vocalization in the printed Talmud and a natural extension for the singular ba'al.

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